กท กาลาเทีย, บทที่ กาลาเทีย, บทที่ 3
Ὁ οὖν νόμος κατὰ τῶν ἐπαγγελιῶν τοῦ Θεοῦ; Μὴ γένοιτο. Εἰ γὰρ ἐδόθη νόμος ὁ δυνάμενος ζῳοποιῆσαι, ὄντως ἂν ἐκ νόμου ἦν ἡ δικαιοσύνη.
กาลาเทีย 3:21 ในหลายฉบับแปล
Ἀρχαία Ἑλληνική
PT1904
ὁ οὖν νόμος κατὰ τῶν ἐπαγγελιῶν τοῦ Θεοῦ; μὴ γένοιτο. εἰ γὰρ ἐδόθη νόμος ὁ δυνάμενος ζωοποιῆσαι, ὄντως ἂν ἐκ νόμου ἦν ἡ δικαιοσύνη·
ไทย
ขจง.
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อังกฤษ
KJV (66 books)
Is the law then against the promises of God? God forbid: for if there had been a law given which could have given life, verily righteousness should have been by the law.
AFINT (Exp US)
Is the Law, then, opposed to the promises of God? Absolutely not. For if a law had been given that could impart life, then righteousness would indeed come through the Law.
AFINT (Lit US)
Is the Law, then, contrary to the promises of God? May it never be! For if a law had been given that was able to impart life, then righteousness would surely have been based on the Law.
ASV
Is the law then against the promises of God? God forbid: for if there had been a law given which could make alive, verily righteousness would have been of the law.
BSB
Is the law, then, opposed to the promises of God? Certainly not! For if a law had been given that could impart life, then righteousness would certainly have come from the law.
DRA
Was the law then against the promises of God? God forbid. For if there had been a law given which could give life, verily justice should have been by the law.
EMTV
Therefore, is the law against the promises of God? By no means! For if a law had been given which was able to give life, truly righteousness would have been by the law.
FBV
So does the law work against God's promises? Of course not! For if there was a law that could give life, then we could be made right by keeping it.
GNV
Is the Lawe then against the promises of God? God forbid: For if there had bene a Lawe giuen which coulde haue giuen life, surely righteousnes should haue bene by the Lawe.
LSV
[Is] the Law, then, against the promises of God? Let it not be! For if a law was given that was able to make alive, truly there would have been righteousness by law,
NIV (US)
Is the law, therefore, opposed to the promises of God? Absolutely not! For if a law had been given that could impart life, then righteousness would certainly have come by the law.
NMV
[Is] the law then against the promises of God-The Father? May it not be: for if there had been a law given which could have given life, truly righteousness should have been by the law.
OJB
Is the Torah, mimeila (consequently, as a result), against the havtachot (promises) of Hashem? Chas v'Shalom (G-d forbid)! For if Gezetz had been given that had the ko'ach (power) to affect hitkhadshut (regeneration), then to be YITZDAK IM HASHEM (justified with G-d) would indeed have been based on ma'asim of Gezetz.
TCENT
Is the law then opposed to the promises of God? Certainly not! For if a law had been given that was able to give life, truly righteousness would have come through the law.
T4T
If someone should ask, “When God gave his laws to Moses long after he told Abraham what he was promising to give to him, was he changing his mind?” I would reply that God certainly did not change his mind when he did that! If God had given a law that could enable people to live eternally, then it actually would be because of people obeying that law that God would erase the record of their sins.
WEB (US)
Is the law then against the promises of God? Certainly not! For if there had been a law given which could make alive, most certainly righteousness would have been of the law.