Kdyby levitské kněžství vedlo k dokonalosti (kvůli níž byl lidu dán Zákon), proč by ještě bylo potřeba, aby povstal jiný kněz podle Melchisedechova řádu, a nebyl jmenován podle Áronova řádu? Gal 2:21; Heb 8:7
Másolás
Zsidókhoz 7:11 különböző fordításokban
Cseh
BKRA protož byla-liť dokonalost spasení skrze Levítské kněžství, (nebo za toho kněžství vydán jest lidu Zákon,) jakáž toho byla potřeba, aby jiný kněz podle řádu Melchisedechova povstal, a nebyl již více podle řádu Aronova jmenován?
SNC[7:11–13]Lévijská služba nebyla s to přivést Boží lid k dokonalosti. Proto bylo třeba jiné služby a jiného kněze – a to podle řádu Malkísedekova. Je zřejmé, že přenesením kněžství zaniká zákonité oprávnění pro trvání lévijské služby.
Magyar
Károli (1908)Ha tehát a lévitai papság által volna a tökéletesség (mert a nép ez alatt nyerte a törvényt): mi szükség tovább is mondogatni, hogy más pap támadjon a Melkisédek rendje szerint és ne az Áron rendje szerint?
OEIVHa tehát a lévita papság által elérhető volna a tökéletesség, (mert a nép ez alatt kapta a törvényt), mi szükség még azt mondani, hogy más pap támadjon Melkisédek rendje szerint és ne az Áron rendje szerint?
If therefore perfection were by the Levitical priesthood, (for under it the people received the law,) what further need was there that another priest should rise after the order of Melchisedec, and not be called after the order of Aaron?
Now if perfection had been achievable through the Levitical priesthood, for based on it the people received the Law, what further necessity existed for another priest to arise according to the order of Melchizedek rather than being designated according to the order of Aaron?
Now if perfection were through the Levitical priesthood—for on the basis of it the people received the Law—what further need would there have been for another priest to arise according to the order of Melchizedek, and not said to be according to the order of Aaron?
Now if there was perfection through the Levitical priesthood (for under it hath the people received the law), what further need was there that another priest should arise after the order of Melchizedek, and not be reckoned after the order of Aaron?
Now if perfection could have been attained through the Levitical priesthood (for on this basis the people received the law), why was there still need for another priest to appear — one in the order of Melchizedek and not in the order of Aaron?
DRAIf then perfection was by the Levitical priesthood, (for under it the people received the law,) what further need was there that another priest should rise according to the order of Melchisedech, and not be called according to the order of Aaron?
EMTVTherefore, if perfection was through the Levitical priesthood (for under it the people have received the law), why is there yet a need for another priest to rise, after the order of Melchizedek, and not to be called after the order of Aaron?
FBVNow if perfection could have been achieved through the priesthood of Levi (for that's how the law was received), what was the need for another priest to come following the order of Melchizedek, and not following the order of Aaron?
GNVIf therefore perfection had bene by the Priesthoode of the Leuites (for vnder it the Lawe was established to the people) what needed it furthermore, that another Priest should rise after the order of Melchi-sedec, and not to be called after the order of Aaron?
LSVIf indeed, then, perfection were through the Levitical priesthood—for the people under it had received law—what further need, according to the order of Melchizedek, for another priest to arise, and not to be called according to the order of Aaron?
NASBSo if perfection was through the Levitical priesthood (for on the basis of it the people received the Law), what further need was there for another priest to arise according to the order of Melchizedek, and not be designated according to the order of Aaron?NASB 2020
If perfection could have been attained through the Levitical priesthood—and indeed the law given to the people established that priesthood—why was there still need for another priest to come, one in the order of Melchizedek, not in the order of Aaron?
NMVIf therefore perfection were by the Levitical priesthood, (for under it the people received the law,) what further need [was there] that another priest should rise after the order of Malki-Tzedek [king of righteousness], and not be called after the order of Aharon [Bright, Very High]?
OJBNow if shleimut (completeness) had been attainable through the Kehunah of Levi — for under it came the Mattan Torah (giving of the Torah) to the Am Brit — what further need would there have been to speak of another KOHEN arising “according to the order of Malki-Tzedek” rather than “al divrati Aharon”?
TCENTNow if perfection had been attainable through the Levitical priesthood (for under this priesthood the people received the law), what further need would there have been for another priest to arise according to the order of Melchizedek rather than the order of Aaron?
T4TGod gave his laws to his people at the same time he gave regulations about the priests. So, if what the priests who were descended from Levi did could have provided a way for God to completely forgive people for disobeying those laws, certainly no other priest like Melchizedek would have been necessary. [RHQ] Instead, priests who were descended from Aaron, Levi’s descendant, would have been adequate.
Now if perfection was through the Levitical priesthood (for under it the people have received the law), what further need was there for another priest to arise after the order of Melchizedek, and not be called after the order of Aaron?
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