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Rómverjabréfið 3:9 í mismunandi þýðingum

Ἀρχαία Ἑλληνική

TR +3 Τί οὖν; Προεχόμεθα; Οὐ πάντως· προῃτιασάμεθα γὰρ Ἰουδαίους τε καὶ Ἕλληνας πάντας ὑφ᾿ ἁμαρτίαν εἶναι,

Íslenska

OLO En erum við Gyðingar betri en annað fólk? Nei, alls ekki. Við höfum þegar sýnt fram á að allir menn eru syndarar, Gyðingar jafnt sem heiðingjar.

Enska

KJV (66 books) +2 What then? are we better than they? No, in no wise: for we have before proved both Jews and Gentiles, that they are all under sin;

AFINT (Exp US) +1 What then is our conclusion? Do we Jews possess any moral superiority or advantage over Gentiles? Not at all! For we have already made the charge and established the case that both Jews and Gentiles alike are all enslaved under the power and guilt of sin.

AFINT (Lit US) +1 What then? Do we have an advantageous superiority? Certainly not. For we have previously charged that both Jews and Greeks are all under sin,

ASV What then? are we better than they? No, in no wise: for we before laid to the charge both of Jews and Greeks, that they are all under sin;

BSB +1 What then? Are we any better? Not at all. For we have already made the charge that Jews and Greeks alike are all under sin.

DRA What then? Do we excel them? No, not so. For we have charged both Jews, and Greeks, that they are all under sin.

EMTV What then? Are we any better? Not at all. For we previously charged both Jews and Greeks that they are all under sin.

FBV So then, are we Jews better than others? Definitely not! Remember that we've already argued that both Jews and foreigners are under the control of sin.

GNV What then? are we more excellent? No, in no wise: for we haue alreadie prooued, that all, both Iewes and Gentiles are vnder sinne,

LSV What, then? Are we better? Not at all! For we charged before both Jews and Greeks with being all under sin,

NIV (US) +1 What shall we conclude then? Do we have any advantage? Not at all! For we have already made the charge that Jews and Gentiles alike are all under the power of sin.

NMV What then? are we better [than they]? No, assuredly not (by no means): for we have before proved both Y’hudim (Judeans) [praised of Yah] and Goyim [Gentiles], that they are all under sin;

OJB What then? Are we (Yehudim) better off? Not altogether. For we have now charged both Yehudim and non-Jews as all alike under HaChet (sin),

RV What then? are we in worse case than they? No, in no wise: for we before laid to the charge both of Jews and Greeks, that they are all under sin;

TCENT What then? Are we Jews any better off? Not at all! For we have previously charged that both Jews and Greeks are all under sin,

T4T If someone would ask, “Shall we conclude that God will treat us Jews more favorably and will treat the non-Jews less favorably [RHQ]?” I would reply that we can certainly not conclude that! I have already shown you that all people, the Jews and also the non-Jews, have sinned and so they deserve to be punished {that God will punish them} [PRS].

WEB (US) +7 What then? Are we better than they? No, in no way. For we previously warned both Jews and Greeks that they are all under sin.