Heb来 Hebrews希伯来书, chapter章 Epistle to the Hebrews希伯来书, chapter章 7

译本对照

If therefore perfection were by the Levitical priesthood, (for under it the people received the law,) what further need [was there] that another priest should rise after the order of Malki-Tzedek [king of righteousness], and not be called after the order of Aharon [Bright, Very High]?Gal 2:21; Heb 8:7

希伯来书 7:11的不同译本

英语

KJV (66 books) If therefore perfection were by the Levitical priesthood, (for under it the people received the law,) what further need was there that another priest should rise after the order of Melchisedec, and not be called after the order of Aaron?

AFINT (Exp US) Now if perfection had been achievable through the Levitical priesthood, for based on it the people received the Law, what further necessity existed for another priest to arise according to the order of Melchizedek rather than being designated according to the order of Aaron?

AFINT (Lit US) Now if perfection were through the Levitical priesthood—for on the basis of it the people received the Law—what further need would there have been for another priest to arise according to the order of Melchizedek, and not said to be according to the order of Aaron?

ASV Now if there was perfection through the Levitical priesthood (for under it hath the people received the law), what further need was there that another priest should arise after the order of Melchizedek, and not be reckoned after the order of Aaron?

BSB Now if perfection could have been attained through the Levitical priesthood ( for on this basis the people received the law), why was there still need for another priest to appear — one in the order of Melchizedek and not in the order of Aaron?

DRA If then perfection was by the Levitical priesthood, (for under it the people received the law,) what further need was there that another priest should rise according to the order of Melchisedech, and not be called according to the order of Aaron?

EMTV Therefore, if perfection was through the Levitical priesthood (for under it the people have received the law), why is there yet a need for another priest to rise, after the order of Melchizedek, and not to be called after the order of Aaron?

FBV Now if perfection could have been achieved through the priesthood of Levi (for that's how the law was received), what was the need for another priest to come following the order of Melchizedek, and not following the order of Aaron?

GNV If therefore perfection had bene by the Priesthoode of the Leuites (for vnder it the Lawe was established to the people) what needed it furthermore, that another Priest should rise after the order of Melchi-sedec, and not to be called after the order of Aaron?

LSV If indeed, then, perfection were through the Levitical priesthood—for the people under it had received law—what further need, according to the order of Melchizedek, for another priest to arise, and not to be called according to the order of Aaron?

NASB So if perfection was through the Levitical priesthood (for on the basis of it the people received the Law), what further need was there for another priest to arise according to the order of Melchizedek, and not be designated according to the order of Aaron? NASB 2020

NIV (US) If perfection could have been attained through the Levitical priesthood—and indeed the law given to the people established that priesthood—why was there still need for another priest to come, one in the order of Melchizedek, not in the order of Aaron?

OJB Now if shleimut (completeness) had been attainable through the Kehunah of Levi — for under it came the Mattan Torah (giving of the Torah) to the Am Brit — what further need would there have been to speak of another KOHEN arising “according to the order of Malki-Tzedek” rather than “al divrati Aharon”?

TCENT Now if perfection had been attainable through the Levitical priesthood (for under this priesthood the people received the law), what further need would there have been for another priest to arise according to the order of Melchizedek rather than the order of Aaron?

T4T God gave his laws to his people at the same time he gave regulations about the priests. So, if what the priests who were descended from Levi did could have provided a way for God to completely forgive people for disobeying those laws, certainly no other priest like Melchizedek would have been necessary. [RHQ] Instead, priests who were descended from Aaron, Levi’s descendant, would have been adequate.

WEB (US) Now if perfection was through the Levitical priesthood (for under it the people have received the law), what further need was there for another priest to arise after the order of Melchizedek, and not be called after the order of Aaron?

中文

当代译本 (简) 以色列人在利未祭司制度的基础上承受律法，如果通过这个祭司制度可以达到纯全，又何必照麦基洗德的模式而不是亚伦的模式，另外兴起一位祭司呢？

當代譯本 (繁) 以色列人在利未祭司制度的基礎上承受律法，如果通過這個祭司制度可以達到純全，又何必照麥基洗德的模式而不是亞倫的模式，另外興起一位祭司呢？

标准译本 (简) 既然如此，如果藉着利未人的祭司职份能达到完全——子民本来在这职份下领受了律法——那么，为什么还需要照着麦基洗德的等级，而不照着所谓“亚伦的等级”兴起另一位祭司呢？

標準譯本 (繁) 既然如此，如果藉著利未人的祭司職份能達到完全——子民本來在這職份下領受了律法——那麼，為什麼還需要照著麥基洗德的等級，而不照著所謂「亞倫的等級」興起另一位祭司呢？

易读圣经如果借着利未人的祭司制度能达到完美（人民是在这制度下领受律法的），为什么还需要照着麦基洗德的体系，另外指认一位祭司，而不是按照亚伦的体系呢？

现代标点和合本 (简) 从前百姓在利未人祭司职任以下受律法，倘若藉这职任能得完全，又何用另外兴起一位祭司，照麦基洗德的等次，不照亚伦的等次呢？

現代標點和合本 (繁) 從前百姓在利未人祭司職任以下受律法，倘若藉這職任能得完全，又何用另外興起一位祭司，照麥基洗德的等次，不照亞倫的等次呢？

普通话本假如通过利未族的祭司制度能达到完美，即在利未族的祭司制度的基础上，律法颁布给了人们，那么，为什么还需要另外一个像麦基洗德而不像亚伦的祭司出现呢？